NEET PG 2019 Question Paper | NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers with Answers

NEET PG 2019 Question Paper with Answers – Get here the NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers with Answers of NEET PG 2019. Download NEET PG question paper 2019 PDF from this page. The question paper also has answers. These will be very helpful for the candidates appearing for the upcoming NEET PG exam from a preparation point of view. In 2019, the majority of the students who appeared for the exam stated that the exam was moderate. Some said it was difficult and very few said that it was easy. However, the pattern and level was as it is now. Scroll down to know more.

NEET PG 2019 Question Paper with Answers

Download NEET PG 2019 Question Paper PDF: Click here to download it.

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National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post-Graduation question papers are exceptional preparation resources that can give the aspirants an insight into the difficulty level of the exam and the types of questions asked in the test.

But, candidates should note that question and answers given in the pdf are memory based. The questions were collected from the students who appeared for the exam, whereas, the answers have been given by the experts.

Q: Drug used for smoking cessation?
A: Varenicline

Q: Premature ejaculation is a disorder of which phase of the sexual response cycle?
A: Orgasmic

Q: CAM is used for screening test as
A: Delirium

Q: What is the morbid fear of darkness called?
A: Nyctophobia

Q: Not true about somnambulism?
A: Consciousness intact

Q: True about acute fatty liver in pregnancy
A: Occurs late in pregnancy

Q: A man who is a chronic alcoholic will develop which type of cardiomyopathy?
A: Dilated

Q: Which of the following is true about the bundle of kent?
A: It is a muscular pathway between the atria and the ventricle in WPW syndrome.

Q: A 20-year-old patient is presented with breathlessness and chest pain. His vitals were BP: 80/60 mmHg, Pulse:105, spO2: 91%. Next best line of management?
A: Cardioversion

Q: Identify the following ECG?

A: Atrial Flutter

Q: Deep venous thrombosis which is incorrect?
A: Clinical assessment is highly reliable

Q: A risk factor in Alzheimer’s disease include
A: Down’s syndrome

Q: Which of the following is included in essential major blood culture criteria for ineffective endocarditis
A: Single positive culture of coxiella

Q: Evidence of endocardial involvement by positive echocardigram

Q: Meld score includes
A: serum creatinine

Q: Which of the following murmur increases in standing?

Q: Osborn J waves are seen in
A: Hypothermia

Q: Punched out Ulcer in the esophagus is seen in?
A: Herpes zoster virus

Q: Infarcts involving which portion of the myocardium causes aneurysm as a post Myocardial infarction complication
A: Anterior transmural MI

Q: Which is not related to HIV
A: Tertiary syphilis

Q: A 26-year-old female patient presented with oral ulcers, sensitivity to light, and rash over the malar area of the face sparing the nasolabial folds of both sides, Which of the following indicates the condition associated?

Q: Type of sensation lost on the same side of brown sequard syndrome:
A: Proprioception.

Q: Child with a recent history of fever, lesion with a sclerotic rim in the upper end of the tibia. Identify the condition as shown:

A: Brodie abscess

Q: The most common joint involved in septic arthritis:
A: Knee

Q: Which of the following statement is wrong about the pathology shown in the image below:

A: Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice

Q: Foot drop is caused by injury to which nerve involvement?
A: Common peroneal nerve

Q: Pott’s puffy tumor
A: Subperiosteal abscess of the frontal bone

Q: What should be the most likely diagnosis of this 65 year old lady presents with backache and following radiograph of the spine shown in the image

A: Spondylolysis

Q: Painful arc syndrome pain is felt during?
A: Mid abduction

Q: Which of the following attitude will be seen in patients with posterior dislocation of the hip?
A: Flexion. abduction and external rotation

Q: Which part of the scaphoid fracture is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?
A: Proximal 1/3rd

Q: True about Dequervain’s tenosynovitis of the finger?
A: It affects APL and EPB

Q: Which of the following is water soluble contrast?
A: Iodine

Q: Identify the infection from the x-ray sheet of the patient with low grade fever

A: Miliaary TB

Q: Identify the condition given in the image

A: ventricular tachycardia

Q: A patient presented with a history of diplopia and restricted eye movements. A clinical image and CT scan is shown below, What will be the diagnosis?

A: Blow out fracture

Q: Identify the radiology procedure shown below:

A: Barium meal follow-through

Q: Identify the condition in the below image

A: Lacunar Infarct

Q: Solitary lytic lesions seen in
A: Multiple Myeloma

Q: The causative organism for the condition depicted in the image below is:

A: Staphylococci

Q: All are true about the skin except?
A: Both dermis and ectoderm are derived from ectoderm

Q: A child with a history of fever, photosensitivity, rash sparing nasolabial fold presents to OPD. Identify the condition?

Q: Patients present with the purity of inter digits of the left hand as shown in the image below. Identify the condition:

A: Sarcoptes Scabiei

Q: Identify the condition shown in the image below:

A: Alopecia areata

Q: Identify the condition in the image below:

A: Vitiligo

Q: Which of the following regarding the condition depicted in the image?

A: Maybe associated with insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus

Q: Zewellgar syndrome is due to the absence of
A: Peroxisome

Q: Urea, creatinine, nitric oxide formed by which amino acid?
A: Arginine

Q: Which of the following is not the source of cytosolic NADPH?
A: ATP citrate lyase

Q: All are true about the mitochondrial DNA, except?
A: All respiratory proteins are synthesized within mitochondria itself.

Q: Which apolipoprotein is responsible for Alzheimer’s disease?

Q: Hyperammonaemia inhibits the TCA cycle by developing?
A: A ketoglutarate

Q: Which amino acid is used for synthesizing nitric oxide?
A: Arginine

Q: Menkes disease is associated with which enzyme deficiency?
A: Lysyl Oxidase

Q: LCATdeficiency increase?

Q: A 25 year olf alcoholic is presented with edema, hypertension, ocular disturbance, and changes in the mental state were observed, diagnosis of high output cardiac failure was made with Beri Beri, this is due to the deficiency of?
A: Vit B1

Q: Glutamine is an increase in CSF, Blood, and urine, this is due to the defeciecy of?

Q: True about Type 1 diabetes mellitus
A: Increased lypolysis

Q: Protein that is not synthesized in the liver is?
A: immunoglobulins

Q: Type of cholesterol present in gallstone?
A: Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate

Q: Collagen present in skin is
A: Type I

Q: Which of the following is not Ribozyme?
A: Poly A polymerase

Q: Type-I hyperlipoproteinemia is characterized by
A: Elevated chylomicrons

Q: In Kreb’s cycle and urea cycle the linking amino acid is?
A: Asartate

Q: Structure derived from first pharyngeal arch:
A: Anterior belly of digastric

Q: Joint involved in movement of head from left to right is?
A: Atlanto axial

Q: What is the nerve supply of Submandibular gland:
A: Lingual Nerve

Q: Parathyroid gland is implanted in which muscle?
A: Brachioradialis

Q: Right coronary artery arises from?
A: Right Aortic Sinus

Q: Which nerve passes through the marked foramen in the
given image:

A: Inferior alveolar nerve

Q: Identify the marked muscle ‘A’ in the diagram:

A: Extensor carpi radialis longus

Q: Duct of Bellini are present in:
A: Kidney

Q: Which of the following exocrine glandular ducts are not obstructed in cystic fibrosis:
A: Sweat gland

Q: Boot shape of heart in TOF is due to:
A: Right ventricular hypertrophy

Q: Which of the following structure is not derived from external oblique muscle?
A: Linea semilunaris

Q: Contralateral loss of pain and temperature is due to injury to:
A: Lateral spinothalamic tract

Q: Space of Disse is in:
A: Liver

Q: What are Gitter cell?
A: Modified macrophages in CNS

Q: Testosterone secreted by,
A: Leydig’s cells.

Q: Aquaporin channel mediated through ADH:
A: Aquaporin 2

Q: All are true about Decerebrate posture EXCEPT:
A: Flexion of upper extremity and extension of lower extremity

Q: Functional residual capacity represents the volume of air remaining in lungs
A: After normal expiration

Q: Tubuloglomerular feedback control is useful for which one of the following?

Q: Calcitonin levels increased in
A: Hyperparathyroidism

Q: Fev1=1.3 & FCV=3.9, Which of the following does this signify?
A: Obstructive lung disease

Q: Antegrade peristalsis due to?

Q: C-peptide is seen
A: In proinsulin

Q: Oral Factor Xa Inhibitor is:
A: Rivaroxaban

Q: High plasma protein binding of a drug results in:
A: Decreased glomerular filtration.

Q: Identify the true statement regarding Clinical Trials
A: Randomized Controlled Trials in patients is done in Phase III

Q: Fluoroquinolone with highest oral bioavailability:
A: Gemifloxacin

Q: Which of the following is a K+ Channel Opener?
A: Nicorandil

Q: A Rheumatoid Arthritis patient on Methotrexate, Steroids and NSAIDs for past 4 months has had no retardation of disease progression. What is the next rational step in management?
A: Stop oral Methotrexate and start parenteral Methotrexate

Q: Tolvaptan is used for:

Q: Buspirone acts on:
A: 5HT1A

Q: Carbapenem with maximum seizure risk is:
A: Imipenem

Q: Cilastatin is given in combination with Imipenem because:
A: Cilastatin prevents degradation of Imipenem in kidney

Q: Mechanism of action of Triazoles:
A: Inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis

Q: Identify the false statement regarding Teduglutide is:
A: A pancreatic enzyme

Q: Hypertension and pulmonary edema associated with scorpion sting is managed by:
A: Prazosin

Q: Mannitol is used in the management of:
A: Acute Congestive Glaucoma

Q: Drug inhibiting granulocyte migration is:
A: Colchicine

Q: Identify the parasite from the accompanying microscope picture of oocysts as seen in stool sample of a patient suffering from watery diarrhea. DOC for this parasitic disease is:

Q: Inhalational anesthetic with highest respiratory irritation is:
A: Desflurane

Q: Indication for use of Pegylated Filgrastim is in the correction of
A: Neutropenia

Q: Agent used for eliciting diagnostic differentiation of Myasthenia Gravis from Cholinergic crisis is:
A: Edrophonium

Q: Anesthetic not painful on Intravenous administration is:
A: Ketamine

Q: Mechanism of action of curare like drugs:
A: Competitive, Non depolarizing block at the Nm cholinergic receptors

Q: Reason for preferring cis-Atracurium over Atracurium is:
A: Lesser provocation of histamine release

Q: Contraindications to use of Beta Blockers:
A: Bronchial Asthma

Q: Drug of Choice for Digoxin induced Ventricular Tachycardia:
A: Lignocaine

Q: Vitamin A is stored in
A: Ito cell

Q: Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to defect in
A: Gp IIb/IIIa

Q: Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?
A: Bcl2 and Bcl – XL

Q: Which of the following is true about alpha 1 antitrypsin?
A: Inhibits elastase

Q: Fish mouth stenosis in Rheumatic heart disease is due to
A: Calcification and fibrosis bridging across valvular commissures

Q: Which of the following is autosomal recessive disorder?
A: Cystic fibrosis

Q: Which of the following is/are is endogenous pyrogen?
A: IL1 and TNF

Q: IL-1 is activated by
A: Caspase 1

Q: Rigor mortis first seen in
A: Heart

Q: Punishment of Perjury is given by
A: 193 IPC

Q: Identical twins can be differentiated by
A: Finger print

Q: True regarding battered baby syndrome:
A: Multiple injuries at different ages

Q: True about Congenital Rubella syndrome is:
A: It will become a chronic infection

Q: A 9 years old child presented to OPD with complaints of high grade fever, vomiting, one episode of seizure. CSF examination was done and Gram staining of the culture showed the following finding. What is the probable causative agent?
A: Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q: HIV patient presented with diarrhea. On stool examination, following acid fast organisms was seen. What is the drug of choice in this patient?
A: Nitazoxanide

Q: A person working in an abattoir presented with malignant pustule on hand; What is the causative agent?
A: Bacillus anthracis

Q: Diagnostic method of choice for leptospirosis:

Q: Investigation of choice for neurosyphilis:

Q: Ideal dose of Diptheria antitoxin given for treatment is:
A: 20,000 to 1,00,000 units

Q: A neonate was found to have cataract, deafness and cardiac defects. Which group of viruses does the mother was infected with:
A: Togaviridae

Q: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A: Chicken pox

Q: Which vaccine strain is changed every yearly?
A: Influenza

Q: Flask shaped ulcers seen in a dysentry patient is diagnostic of:
A: Amoebiasis

Q: A 35 years old man presented with dry cough and rusty coloured sputum; He has history of eating in chinese restraunt very often with consumption of crabs often; What is the probable causative agent in this condition?
A: (C) Paragonimus westermani

Q: Culture media for Legionella:
A: BCYE agar

Q: Special stain for Cryptococcus:
A: Mucicarmine stain

Q: Disk diffusion method is also known as:
A: Kirby Bauer method

Q: A child is suffering from recurrent chronic infections with encapsulated bacteria; Which subclass of IgG does the child has deficiency?
A: IgG2

Q: Infection of following organism has clinical features resembling erythroblastosis foetalis?
A: Cytomegalovirus

Q: An AIDS patient presented to OPD with dyspnoes and respiratory illness; Which of the following is suitable to diagnose the opportunistic infection commonly seen in AIDS patient?

Q: A 2 year old boy with Vitamin A deficiency is treated with
A: 2 Lak IU on days 0,1,14

Q: What is the Size of this blade used in incision and Drainage?
A: 11 size

Q: Not a part of personal protective kit:
A: Lab coat

Q: If a mother is donating here kidney to her son- This is an example of
A: Allograft

Q: Parathyroid Gland accidentally removed and found after surgery is implanted in
A: Brachioradialis

Q: Teduglutide is a recently introduced drug for Short Bowel Syndrome- What is it?
A: GLP -2 analogue

Q: A patient complaints of breathlessness following a trauma, Trachea shifted to opposite side, Resonant percussion note seen with absent Breath sounds. On insertion of ICD- False statement is
A: Inserted into 4th or 5th ICS along the Scapular Line

Q: A patient presents with heaviness of leg with veins of diameter less than 1mm over the posterior part of the calf- Under CEAP , classification it comes under
A: C1

Q: 45 years female with 3 months menorrhagia. USG showing 2 cm submucosal fibroid. First line of management is:
A: Endometrial sampling.

Q: Patient with recurrent abortion diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment:
A: Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin

Q: 60 year woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?
A: Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair

Q: Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?
A: Luteal phase

Q: Female with 41 wk gestation confirmed by radiological investigation, very sure of her LMP, no uterine contractions, no effacement and no dilatation. What should not be done?
A: PGF2alpha

Q: The dosage of Vitamin A in keratomalacia ina 2 year old boy who is 12 kg weight is
A: Vitamin A :2 lakh I U ,oral , 1st , 2nd and 14th day

Q: A 3 year old child is presenting with drooping of upper lid since birth. On examination , the palpebral aperture height is 6 mm and with poor levator palpebrae superioris function. What is the procedure recommended?
A: Frontalis Sling surgery

Q: Test based on the principle of suspect’s reaction, if he witnesses an event then he behaves in a certain way is?
A: Polygraph

Q: Which of the following is not true regarding delusional disorder?
A: Occurs at early age

NEET PG Mock Test

The purpose of the NEET PG 2021 demo test is to help PG medical aspirants in understating the computer based test format. All who will appear in NEET PG can take the mock test at, through any compatible web browser.

A demo test or the mock test will be a replica of the NEET PG computer-based test. Soon after the demo test.

NEET PG 2021 Mock Test – Try Now!

How to Prepare fo NEET PG

The only difference between the students who top the exams and the students who get average/passing marks or don’t clear the exam is the formulation of an effective strategy. 

Strategy making: Candidates willing to crack NEET exam have to be sure that they have made the right strategy for NEET examination. One way to do is to understand where you are lacking and make specific preparation strategy for that section. Ideally if the candidates will be starting earliest, they can complete the NEET PG preparation while studying just 24-25 Hours in a week. Students should not worry as this means giving just 3-4 hours to the preparation everyday.

Know the right books: The first crucial step to follow is that the students must have the right books for the preparation. If the candidates having good quality books, it will be easier for them to know the repeated answers.

How much time each day should to prepare for NEET PG?: Candidates appearing in the NEET PG exam will have to devote at least 8-10 hrs of studying if they want to get into the kind of college they are aiming for. 

Should you set a timetable for preparation?: A timetable will be very helpful for NEET PG preparation. The candidates have to ensure that they keep track of what they study and how well they are studying it. Dividing the work hours and rest hours will be helpful for ensuring that the students do not feel tired and stay motivated. 


NEET PG is a national-level medical examination that is conducted for MDS / MS / PG Diploma courses. It is a computer-based examination. The questions in the exam are asked as to what candidates have studied at the MBBS level. The test is conducted on a single day in a single session. The scores for NEET PG are accepted to fill 50% of All India Quota seats at the national level. The rest of the seats are filled at the state level.

Official website:


Is 600 a good score in NEET PG?

To get a rank under 4000, you must score 600+ in NEET PG exam. Thus, 600+ score is a good score in NEET PG.

How difficult was NEET PG?

The difficulty level of NEET PG 2020 is being reviewed as moderate to difficult in almost all the years.

How can I get good score in NEET PG?

The syllabus of NEET PG is enormous. Make a Revision timetable for all 19 subjects and take one subject at a time. Stay super focused and dedicate your time only to preparation.

Do questions repeat in NEET PG?

There are chances that questions from the previous years’ may be asked in the current year. 

Is NEET PG tough?

Yes, it is tough. Because the exam pattern is decided by the National Board of Examination which also conducts the exam. But with good preparation and strategy one can crack the exam.

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